I'm sure the title of this response could invoke some sort of idea about a double standard romance but I just wanted to know if I read your post correctly: If the only extant Coptic MSS of 2 Enoch only date to the "10th or eleventh century" yet "Many papers [at the conference] are arguing for a pre-70 date" then how come many won't date Greek NT MSS from the 4th century or earlier to first century origins? If they are willing to put an archtype back 9 or 10 centuries why wouldn't similar archtypes be acceptable for NT Greek MSS going back less than that?

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