DLB writes: "To define marriage as between a man and a woman (as Jesus does) and to speak against adultery is to call polygamy a sin. "

So polygamy is a sin: let's assume that to be a fact.

Again, was there any recording of any Old Testament patriarch repenting of this particular sin? Did God demand they let loose one or more of their wives before He would converse or otherwise use them? Is the salvation of any of the prophets/patriarchs in question? Abraham had multiple wives, so did David (a "man after God's own heart"). Are they in Hell or not?

If they are, I guess the discussion's over.

Otherwise, if God can not only use unrepentant polygamists but use them as the bearers of the entire Judeo-Christian tradition, is it unreasonable to suggest that one can label homosexuality as "falling short" while still believing the homosexual person can be a person of faith who can achieve salvation EVEN as a homosexual?

Besides, there are fewer excuses for the Old Testament men: they had a closer connection to God than just about any human since, and it's easier by far for a heterosexual to have one spouse than it is for a homosexual to "switch teams", so to speak.

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