Dr, Bock! Thanks for your answer regarding the I Am-sayings... I do agree...

Ive got a final question regarding the translation of John 1:18.
θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε: μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.

i. μονογενὴς θεὸς. A lot of people among the Messianic Movement in Sweden suggests that this expressions is faulty and could not have been the author's original; therefore it must have been altered (or perhaps corrected) by later scribes...
What's your opinion on this crucial wording? Older bible translation do prefers the "ho monogenes huios"- wording.

ii. NIV translates the above: No-one har ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is att hte Father's side, has made him known.

iii. NRSV: No one has ever seen God. It is God the only Son, who is close to the Father's heart who has made him known.

Nestle-Aland introduced this reading from p66 and p75 (except for the article before μονογενὴς) ... Even though these sources are old, does that mean they are correct?

Sincerely Magnus Nordlund

Reply

The content of this field is kept private and will not be shown publicly.
CAPTCHA
This question is used to make sure you are a human visitor and to prevent spam submissions.
Image CAPTCHA
Copy the characters (respecting upper/lower case) from the image.