JACOB: Who were his audience? Demonstrate that they assumed that Jesus existed. This is an unsupported assumption you are making. Further, explain why Paul never attributes any saying or teaching to Jesus. And at the same, why is it that Paul never quotes Jesus as in "Jesus said..." Do you want us to believe that Paul never found anything Jesus taught on earth to be useful as a source of teaching to his audience? Explain please.
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Take your pick. The Romans, Corinthians, Galatians, Philippians, or Thessalonians. In none of these epistles does Paul build a case for the *existence of Jesus*. They already believe in Jesus. This is evidence of a shared assumption! But concerning Romans, Corinthians, Galatians, and Philippians, Paul absolutely mentions the real humanity of Christ which Dr. Bock has pointed out numerous times. His reasons for doing so were the proclamation of the Gospel (Rom. 1); a defense against heresy (Gal. 4); an example of humility (Phil. 2); and declaring/defending the resurrection (1Cor. 15).

There is no 'assumption' on my part. Ancient societies shared common beliefs and knowledge of certain events, places, people, etc. There is no need for Paul to go into detail concerning things that were already accepted by his audience. Your need for details is the result of a low context Western mindset -- and when reading ancient documents we need to read them on their terms, not ours.

Paul DOES attribute sayings and teachings to Jesus, for example:

For I received from the Lord what I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus on the night when he was betrayed took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, "This is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me." In the same way also he took the cup, after supper, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me." (1Cor. 11:23-25 cf. Lu. 22:19-20)
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JACOB: I knew kurios/kyrios would come up. Let me offer an explanation I got from someone else, who has a better knowledge of Greek than myself:
The LXX Greek uses an absolute reference kurios to refer to God, but kurios can refer to other figures as well, though not in the absolute. Now, the three different uses of kurios are:

1) as a title, eg the lord Jesus Christ (another example is in the expression "our lord" );
2) use in defining statements such as "Jesus is lord"; and
3) use as a complete reference to an entity, "the lord said..."

No 3 above is always used by the LXX to refer to God.

We find very few examples of Paul's use of #3 that can be guaranteed to refer to Jesus. In two of those cases we find other things to question the originality of the surrounding material, eg we get one of the very few gospel-like pericopes, or we get a phrase like "crucified the Lord of glory" when "glory" is almost exclusively an attribute of the father.
The argument leads to using those few examples where "the Lord" refers to Jesus as indicating later editing. See Robert Price's article on 1 Corinthians 15:3-11 as a Post-Pauline Interpolation at http://depts.drew.edu/jhc/rp1cor15.html
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Again, roughly 90% (about 180 out of 200) of Paul's use of kyrios is in reference to Jesus, not the Father. Contrary to that, Paul almost never uses theos in reference to Jesus but consistently uses it in reference to the Father. The LXX usage of kyrios for God certainly helps the case for Jesus' divine identity (and remember as Dr. Bock has been pointing out, it's not an either/or dillemma -- Jesus is BOTH human AND divine) -- my point was that to contend that: "Paul uses "the Lord" to mean God." is special pleading. Paul uses 'God' to mean God [the Father] and 'Lord' to mean Jesus [the Son of God].

And Robert Price admits to being in the minority on the majority of his views -- that should tell you something...